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Prostitution vs adultery

@Transformator Reformator, that phrase "consumeth unto a cake of bread" is a weird one that is somewhat ambiguous in the Hebrew - it could mean various things, so is rendered in different ways in different translations. The LXX however translates it less ambiguously, giving the meaning in the translation I used in the first post of this thread - that her fee is the price of a loaf of bread. This I find more logical than any other option, and also more likely to be correct given it is what the 70 scholars behind the LXX understood it to mean, and they knew Hebrew better than any modern scholar can hope to.
 
Transformator Reformator said:
I wonder if there is a third category of a sexually deviant woman. The Proverbs 6:23-35 passage compares adulteress and prostitute. Is there category of a woman who is just promiscuous, without reducing a man to piece of bread (there was no money exchanged) and she is not attached to anyone as a wife.
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The 3rd category points back to the man as the guilty party:

Exodus 22:16
16 If a man seduces a virgin who is not engaged to anyone and has sex with her, he must pay the customary bride price and marry her. 17 But if her father refuses to let him marry her, the man must still pay him an amount equal to the bride price of a virgin.

So a young man has a girlfriend in high school. She's a virgin. They have sexual relations. The man moves on, and does not wish to proceed to take her as his wife. Zero punishment in western christian civilization. Torah teaches that there should be a bride price he has to pay to her father (even if he decides he doesn't want her as his wife). If he can't afford the bride price, then he becomes a slave to pay off his debt (I guess you’re going to have to hold off on your plans for college). This is a sin that causes whoredom and wickedness in the land. What is she going to do? She will move on to another boyfriend. Then another. Until she gets married. And studies show women that have had several partners before marriage are way more likely to divorce their husband, and cause the husband nothing but stress and trouble. Why? Because if she decides to divorce him almost always the state will give the woman the children, the wealth from her husband, and child support payments (if they had children). This is wickedness. The children grow up without their father (the master of the house). Children that grow up without the father are more likely to be woke versus reborn with the spirit of truth.

Furthermore, the woman freely gave her body to strangers for nothing, but for her own husband she made him pay severely. This is also wickedness from the woman. But where did this sin originate? The girl's father has a part to play. Lack of a bride price for virgins has a part to play. The state laws have a part to play (any church that requires a state license for marriage is either ignorant of scripture or is controlled by a spirit that seeks to destroy marriage). And of course, the man that took her virginity. "My people are destroyed for a lack of knowledge." Hosea 4:6. They have rejected the perfect torah of Elohim (Psalm 19:7) in favor of the righteousness of the world. This is why western civilization is ripe for judgement for their wickedness and pride. Deceptive spirits rule over the christian church - they teach it's wrong to be married - but fornication, homosexuality, divorce, and adultery are OKAY! Christ came for the sinners! Christ is love! But if a man has two wives he is demonic and worthy of ex-communication. Pure ignorance of the word points back to Hosea 4:6 - Judgement and Destruction. Anyone that has been with multiple sexual partners un-righteously - but judged a man that did it righteously through additional wives - will be judged accordingly.

Leviticus 19:29
Lamsa Bible
You shall not permit your daughter to become a whore, lest the land fall to whoredom and the land become full of wickedness.
 
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Transformator Reformator said:
I wonder if there is a third category of a sexually deviant woman. The Proverbs 6:23-35 passage compares adulteress and prostitute. Is there category of a woman who is just promiscuous, without reducing a man to piece of bread (there was no money exchanged) and she is not attached to anyone as a wife.
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Not that I know.

However, this is interesting:

Ezekiel 16:32-34 “‘Wives who are unfaithful to their husbands accept gifts from their lovers. And men commonly pay their whores. But you pay your lovers! You bribe men from all over to come to bed with you! You’re jus but as a wife that committeth ad

“‘Wives who are unfaithful to their husbands accept gifts from their lovers. And men commonly pay their whores. But you pay your lovers! You bribe men from all over to come to bed with you! You’re jus but as a wife that committeth adultery, which taketh strangers instead of her husband! They...
www.bible.com

How often did you heard for women to pay men for sex?
 
Transformator Reformator said:
I did not. But I know people are doing it for free. It is sad that that such behavior gets rewarded in our times. May God heal our lands.
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Isaiah writes that there was a time - among the people that claim to know their Creator - that the women ruled over the men. Today - the same thing is happening. Men have allowed - under the guise of equality - to hand over women power and authority. Over time that power and authority has shifted in favor of women (just look at what happens during divorce). This is exactly what Lucifer wanted done in the heavens against the Almighty. He wanted equality (Isaiah 14:13), then he would had overthrown the Father in Heaven. But the Creator wasn’t having it, and Lucifer got himself kicked out of Heaven (Luke 10:18).

Now he’s doing what he wanted in Heaven - on earth. First he sneaked in through the door of equality. Now women rule in western civilization.

What happened in ancient Israel? Judgement and destruction. And there were so few men left that polygyny returned with a vengeance - Isaiah 4:1.

Edit:

Btw - that woman you posted is married. She is still married to her husband. So these young men are not sleeping with a prostitute - but a married woman. She has even now slept with a 1,000 men in one day. Just because a woman is a “prostitute,” doesn’t mean she doesn’t have a husband at home who turns the other cheek, because of the money she brings.
 
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MemeFan said:
Not that I know.

However, this is interesting:

Ezekiel 16:32-34 “‘Wives who are unfaithful to their husbands accept gifts from their lovers. And men commonly pay their whores. But you pay your lovers! You bribe men from all over to come to bed with you! You’re jus but as a wife that committeth ad

“‘Wives who are unfaithful to their husbands accept gifts from their lovers. And men commonly pay their whores. But you pay your lovers! You bribe men from all over to come to bed with you! You’re jus but as a wife that committeth adultery, which taketh strangers instead of her husband! They...
www.bible.com

How often did you heard for women to pay men for sex?
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A lot of Ezekiel 16 is imagery of spiritual adultery against the Father in Heaven. The wife represents his people. The husband represents the Creator.
 
Mark C said:
What does it HAVE to say?
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It has to say what you’re claiming it says. Which it doesn’t.
Mark C said:
Where do you ASSUME they were? And why did Abraham's agent/servant act as the ALL seemed to know a father would have? Why did the 'un-named' servant ask permission? And of whom?
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You’re quoting me here from a place where I was responding about war brides, not Isaac.
Mark C said:
can't. Because you will NOT ALLOW honest discussion of ALL of His Torah.
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You’re welcome for that by the way. That has been the greatest crutch for you. Now when you can’t articulate something you blame it on me not allowing you to. We really threw you a life line with that.
Mark C said:
Precedent" means just that
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How very Catholic of you! You have a canon law too huh? Unfortunately you would have to show me where precedent is laid out in scripture and then explain why God would leave something as important as marriage up to precedent. Which you can’t. Which you will then blame on me.
 
Transformator Reformator said:
That was my fault for forgetting the difference of opinion. I was writing it late at night. I am leaning that intercourse is binding and therefore one flesh union does equal marriage and marriage equals one flesh union. Those are synonymous phrases for me. But it can be nullified by headship. Same way a vow can be nullified by headship. But understand it is minority view and I am sorry for steering the discussion from intended goal.
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I know this is not part of the thread discussion, but since I stated above here I wanted to correct it here. (Looking forward to reviewing link to the tread introduced by @The Revolting Man about "one flesh". )

"One flesh" is not synonymous with marriage but could be synonymous with the word "family". Based on Gen.29:14, 37:27; Lev. 18:6; Judg. 9:2; 2 Sam. 5:1, 19:12-13; Neh. 5:5; Isa. 58:7, the word is begging to be translated "family".

For this reason Genesis 2:24 could be rendered "they shall become family".

If translated that way this does not change binding nature and responsibility once intercourse happened. (I think, even if one considers 1 Corinthians 6:16).

(For further contemplation I will go to that link to fine tune my own understanding).
 
Transformator Reformator said:
"One flesh" is not synonymous with marriage but could be synonymous with the word "family". Based on Gen.29:14, 37:27; Lev. 18:6; Judg. 9:2; 2 Sam. 5:1, 19:12-13; Neh. 5:5; Isa. 58:7, the word is begging to be translated "family".
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Very true.
 
And, for those who have difficulty following stories in the Bible, part of the idea of "commitment" has to do with raising seed.

"Can you PROVE that?" Aw, come'on. Don't the stories about Abraham's seed kinda make the point?
 
Transformator Reformator said:
I know this is not part of the thread discussion, but since I stated above here I wanted to correct it here. (Looking forward to reviewing link to the tread introduced by @The Revolting Man about "one flesh". )

"One flesh" is not synonymous with marriage but could be synonymous with the word "family". Based on Gen.29:14, 37:27; Lev. 18:6; Judg. 9:2; 2 Sam. 5:1, 19:12-13; Neh. 5:5; Isa. 58:7, the word is begging to be translated "family".

For this reason Genesis 2:24 could be rendered "they shall become family".

If translated that way this does not change binding nature and responsibility once intercourse happened. (I think, even if one considers 1 Corinthians 6:16).

(For further contemplation I will go to that link to fine tune my own understanding).
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This has been my contention for quite some time. I think we tend too over spiritualized a lot of stuff. It’s the hangup with the monogamists. I think they try to spiritualize one flesh into this mystical “soul mate” crap. It’s just too fem for me.
 
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